0

A. the effects of the spraying of Matacil...

B. the effects of spraying of Matacil...

Would you please tell me if you feel any difference in meaning between those, and which of them could be treated as a good English?

Thanks in advance

  • 2
    Using the article implies we're talking about some specific spraying process, which would normally entail the further implication that said spraying has in fact taken place. Without the article it's possible no such spraying has ever been done, and you're just talking about possible effects if it was carried out. – FumbleFingers Sep 27 '15 at 16:19
  • @FumbleFingers In the spraying of something, there is no gerund, only a noun phrase involving a deverbal noun with a prepositional phrase. In spraying something, we have an actual verb with an object, so this is the gerund-participle. Gerunds don’t take noun things; they take verb things; for example, you can apply quickly to the gerund but not to the deverbal noun, which of course requires an adjective. – tchrist Sep 27 '15 at 16:29
  • Thanks. However, what about my specific question(s)? – nima Sep 27 '15 at 17:51

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy

Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.