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Which is correct?

Tara has only been married for two days.

or

Tara has been married for two days only.

If both are correct then what is the difference between them?

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The link given by user1 is good information but doesn't address the main issue of these sentences. Let me explain...

Tara has only been married for two days.

This is definitely how English speakers talk (especially Americans - of which I am one). However, grammatically, it has a problem. If at all possible, you should not split your verb phrases. In this sentence, I'm talking about... "has been married." This verb phrase needs to stay together.

English speakers love to add words like always, only, or almost that split these words. Sometimes, you cannot find a way to rewrite the sentence without splitting the verb phrases. However, many times you can find a proper way to rewrite the sentence where you don't have to split the verb phrases, such as in your second example.

Tara has been married for two days only.

This sentence is proper, but I would rewrite as the following.. "Tara has been married for only two days." This stresses the point of the sentence a little better.

Hope this helps!

  • I don't think there was even a real rule banning split verbs in the first place. – Nihilist_Frost Nov 16 '15 at 17:56

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