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I still remember during my English class, my English teacher taught us that we should always put ourself at last when referring to a group of people.

Eg. Ali, Ahmad and me instead of me,Ali and Ahmad.

Why would the first sentences sounds grammatical but the second is not ?

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  • It's often claimed that it has something to do with politeness, but I think that's just something people hear and repeat. If you actually spend a moment and think about it, it's hard to come up with any justification for actually claiming that's the case. It's clearly a matter of grammar. – snailplane Nov 17 '15 at 3:07
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Completely unrelated to grammar.

It is simply a polite convention. In informal English this is often ignored and you can use either without someone batting an eye.

But if someone insists on putting yourself last, do it if not doing so bothers them.

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  • I'd argue that this convention is related to grammar. (Note that one definition of grammar is, "the study of the way the sentences of a language are constructed." Another is, "the set of language rules that you use, most of the time unconsciously, to create phrases and sentences that convey meaning.") – J.R. Nov 16 '15 at 18:06