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Is it grammatically correct to use the simple present tense of a verb and the simple past tense of to be in relative clauses to express the subjunctive mood?

Examples:

  1. He would be happy with a woman who loves him for who he is.
  2. He would be happy with a woman who were or was with him for who he is.

Can we also express the subjunctive by using the simple past tense or would+verb in 1 and the simple present tense or would+verb in 2, as in the examples below?

1a He would be happy with a woman who loved him for who he is.

1b He would be happy with a woman who would love him for who he is.

2a He would be happy with a woman who is with him for who he is.

2b He would be happy with a woman who would be with him for who he is.

Could you please explain what the correct usage is and why?

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Using the present tense or past tense works.

1.- He would be happy with a woman who loves him for who he is.
2.- He would be happy with a woman who was with him for who he is.
3.- He would be happy with a woman who loved for who he is.

However, the subjunctive works with would + base form with the following expressions:

1.- I wish you wouldn't speak loudly.
2.- If only it would snow.

Note also that subjunctive mood applies for more cases like:

1.- I hope it works.
2.- We'll go there unless it rains.

As you can see, the present simple is involved to invoke it.

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