I wonder if the following sentence will be grammatical in the most bizarre context:
No one of them seems grammatical.
None of them seems grammatical.
No one seems grammatical.
Though it's controversial whether the second sentence really works with accordance to semantic rules.
My intuition also [rightfully] says there should be a "not" instead of "no" in order to render the sentence grammatical, or at least revise it to a more colloquial state:
Not one of them seems grammatical.
But the question is, is the original sentence undoubtedly an ungrammatical utterance? If so, why should I use "not" instead of "no"? If both sentences are perfectly acceptable, what possible change in meaning does changing "no" to "not" bring on?
See also "Neither", "none", "no one" + [of them] + verb-s — where the highest-voted answer doesn't choose a clear position regarding a similar structure while a deleted (but fairly highly voted) answer claims it's grammatical.