This question already has an answer here:

What is the difference between these two questions:

  1. Why Sweden makes the best music?
  2. Why does Sweden make the best music?

I suppose there is no difference and one of these is just incorrect. Am I right?

marked as duplicate by Nathan Tuggy, stangdon, Alejandro, Nihilist_Frost, Maulik V Dec 11 '15 at 4:39

This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.

migrated from english.stackexchange.com Dec 10 '15 at 0:04

This question came from our site for linguists, etymologists, and serious English language enthusiasts.

  • Ok I am sorry, I will report to moderator to migrate this. – kukis Dec 7 '15 at 17:11
  • No need to apologise. It may get migrated by user votes anyway, since we now have the option of doing that ourselves. I, on the other hand, feel a bit sorry that I can't tell you what kind of clause your first version represents. Btw - idiomatically, it would always be the best music (except they don't! :) – FumbleFingers Dec 7 '15 at 17:13
  • This is fundamentally a do-support question. It may or may not be migrated to ELL (I'll let the community decide that). If it is not migrated, you will find helpful answers under the do-support tag. – Kit Z. Fox Dec 7 '15 at 19:00

This is the answer:

Why Sweden makes the best music, is because...

To the question:

Why does Sweden make the best music?

Your first sentence is not a question, but can be used to answer the second sentence which is a question.

  • "Why Sweden makes the best music, is because..." is poorly worded. It is redundant. Instead say "Sweden makes the best music because...". – Readin Dec 10 '15 at 6:49

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