I know that have belongs to British English and have got belongs to American English. This is clear to me.
I've watched Les Miserables. Although some (most?) actors are Americans, one of them said in an interview that they used the British dialect. Here is a quotation from the film:
There are children back at home. And the children have got to be feed.
The plot takes place in the second half of the nineteenth century. So is it a mistake or is have a relatively new word in British English? It seems highly unlikely to me.
Also, I've watched Robin Hood. I'm aware that the TV series couldn't be made with an original dialect which was used in the 12th century, but I was suprised that the characters used have got and have got to very ofen, much more ofen that have.
Why is that?