Basically I want to say, for example, that somebody is "Mark Twain of our times". Will this be grammatically correct?


Either is grammatically correct, but you should say of our time because it's idiomatic.

  • 2
    This is true, but the difference is not so dramatic that the second can be considered wrong, just somewhat less common. Jan 20 '16 at 17:20
  • On top of that, the count of "of our time" has probably been inflated by things like "most of our time" and "we have spent enough of our time on this".
    – stangdon
    Jan 20 '16 at 22:29

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