2
  1. He has not to cook rice.
  2. He does not have to cook rice.

Which negative form is acceptable?
Thanks in advance.

3 Answers 3

1

The second. The helping verb "to do" is one of the three main helping verbs. It is the one used to give a negative answer and to ask a question where there is no other helping verb. Here, 'have to' is a modal auxilliary. The main verb is "cook".

1

Your first example is ungrammatical. The second is valid.

Note that when you say that someone "has to do X", there are two kinds of negation possible: You could say that he is not required to do X, or you could say that he is required to not do X. That is, there are really three possibilities: You are required to do it; You are forbidden to do it; and, You can do it or not as you please.

So:

  • He has to cook rice.

  • He does not have to cook rice.

  • He must not cook rice. - or - He has to not cook rice.

Some object to "he has to not X" on the grounds that this breaks the rule against splitting an infinitive. Personally I think this is a pointless rule (in the same category with "never use a preposition to end a sentence with" that we make fun of often here), but a teacher or editor may believe in this rule and mark you off for breaking it.

0

"You have to do" is derived from "You have the duty/obligation etc to do sth". So "to have + to-infinitive" is a normal verb and the negation with don't is logical.

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