0

The following appears as an example sentence in this entry on UrbanDictionary.com:

Timmy's got jokes if he thinks I'm going to sell him my $3000 rims for $500 bucks!

I need additional help in understanding what's mean by got jokes in this context.

10
  • 1
    Where did you hear this or see this?
    – J.R.
    Commented Feb 4, 2016 at 17:32
  • This reminds me of the phrase 'you've got to be joking', which means you don't believe the person speaking to you is being serious, but phrased in this way it doesn't sound right, nor does it really make sense. Commented Feb 4, 2016 at 17:54
  • 1
    What @DaaaahWhoosh said. The speaker/writer is obviously not a native Anglophone. He's just "mangling" the standard colloquial usage Timmy must be joking if he thinks [blah blah]. Regardless of that though, the contracted Timmy's can only stand for Timmy has in OP's example, but it would have to stand for is if I reduced my version to Timmy's joking if he... Commented Feb 4, 2016 at 18:17
  • 1
    @Hp93 Yes, in this sentence Timmy's is a contracted form of Timmy has.
    – Era
    Commented Feb 4, 2016 at 18:58
  • 1
    Pretty much the only place I have ever seen this is on UrbanDictionary.com. It does not seem to be a common usage.
    – stangdon
    Commented Feb 4, 2016 at 20:25

1 Answer 1

-1

As the comments suggested, he's got jokes is not a common idiomatic expression. It's clear from context what is meant ("he's got to be joking" or "he's kidding himself") but the phrase itself doesn't make sense.

5
  • Hi, so the phrase doesn't correct right? If the other part has been removed, does it still mean "he's got to be joking"? For example, someone just say "Timmy's got jokes.". How do you understand that? Timmy's got to be joking or Timmy made a joke? Sorry I'm not a native speaker and just wonder if this is somehow grammatically correct.
    – Hp93
    Commented Feb 5, 2016 at 8:56
  • It is grammatically correct, it just doesn't make much sense in the original sentence you posted. The phrase Timmy's got jokes, by itself, literally means "Timmy owns or is in possession of jokes". The original sentence was using this phrase non-literally like an idiom, but it's not an idiom. It would be fine to use the phrase in a literal context: "Do you need an opening joke for your speech tonight? Timmy's got jokes. Maybe you can get some suggestions from him."
    – Era
    Commented Feb 5, 2016 at 15:15
  • Also note that To get a joke is an idiomatic expression meaning "To understand a joke". You might be able to use this phrase in that context as well.
    – Era
    Commented Feb 5, 2016 at 15:24
  • @Era I think your answer meeds to be reconsidered now that the question has been edited. The entire example sentence appears in the Urban Dictionary, with a different meaning. If it actially has such a meaning for more than the writer of the entry is another questionn Commented Feb 6, 2016 at 9:49
  • @JimReynolds No, the meaning is the same as what I said (phrased slightly differently). There are numerous expressions that mean the same thing, like "You can't be serious." Additionally, Urban Dictionary is not a "real" dictionary and should not be used as a unilateral source for inexperienced learners of English. It has a huge number of entries that are total nonsense or only used within very specific speech communities.
    – Era
    Commented Feb 6, 2016 at 18:18

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged .