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Can anyone tell me where we have to use "has" and where we have to use "have"?
I am confused. Can anyone explain me in a simple way?

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As you may know, have and has are both present forms of the verb to have and are employed with the verb have alone (for a present simple), with have/has (used as an auxiliary verb) and the past participle of another verb (for a present perfect) or with have/has (used as an auxiliary verb), the past participle of be and the past participle of another verb (for a present perfect continuous).

  • Has is used with a third singular person ("he", "she", "it", or a noun) i.e. when the subject is singular but it's neither the person who's writing/speaking ("I") or the person who's reading/listening ("you"):

    • He has just asked a question.

  • Have is used in any other case:

    • Can anyone tell me when we have to use "have", etc.

    • I have just copied a sentence from your question.

    • Have you noticed it?

Here you will find the complete conjugation of the verb.

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  • It is not broadly used, but third party singular agreement applies to to-infinitive and gerund (or gerund-participle) when they are used as a subject.
    – user24743
    Commented Feb 7, 2016 at 12:58
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The words 'has' and 'have' are used as a main verb and auxiliary verb in the present tense.

In either case, has is used for the third person singular: he, she, it.

As for have, it's used for the third person plural and the first and second persons, singular and plural.

Examples as a main verb:

He/she has a big house.

Mr Smith has no car.

It has five rooms

They/I/We/You have a big house.

Examples as an auxiliary to make sentences in the present perfect:

He has completed his homework.

She has had her breakfast.

I have completed my homework.

They have eaten their food.

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