The name "Death in June" refers to June 30, 1934, the "Night of Long Knives", when Hitler had Ernst Roehm and other leaders of the SA (nazi stormtroopers) murdered.

Is the causative in the above sentence used? I mean the part "Hitler had Roehm… murdered". I am familiar with these types of causative: (a) HAVE SOMEBODY DO SOMETHING, (b) HAVE SOMETHING DONE But neither of them fits into the sentence. Here is the pattern different. Is this the causative or a different grammatical structure?

  • 1
    Yes, it's the same structure. Mar 26, 2016 at 15:39
  • It is a causative for it wasn't Hitler himself who murdered Ernst Roehm and other leaders of SA. The basic structure changes because of the verb tense, but it could have been written "Hitler had Ernst Roehm (...)'s murder done." Mar 26, 2016 at 15:44
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    They're all the same construction; HAVE agent VERB [complements] is the active version, HAVE patient VERBen [by agent] is the passive version. (The -en designates a past participle) Mar 26, 2016 at 16:43

2 Answers 2


Yes, but it uses the past participle and the agent is missing. The agent is whoever carried out the murders. Hitler himself didn't murder Roehm. Hitler ordered someone or some group to murder Roehm.

Hitler had Roehm murdered (by someone or by some group).

This is similar to the passive construction.

Roehm was murdered (by someone or some group).


Have+object + past participle means cause something to be done by somebody else. Someone killed Roehm.

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