I know that the verb following has or have must be in past participle. But why did Google say that the following sentence is correct: "He hasn't texted me in 2 days."
Can someone explain to me why it's correct or incorrect?
Ex 1: He hasn't run home. or He hasn't ran home.
Ex 2: He hasn't tell me anything. or he hasn't told me anything.
Ex 3: She hasn't come home in 2 days. or she hasn't came home in 2 days.
Why is it that the past particle of "tell" is "told" and the past participle of "come" is "come"? Shouldn't the past participle of "come" be "came"?