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Which one is correct?

This is a very old book. I have been had it since I was child

or

This is a very old book. I have had it since I was child

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  • ".....I have had it since I was a child." is correct.
    – ab2
    Commented May 27, 2016 at 3:34

3 Answers 3

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The second one is correct present perfect of "to have." "I have had it since I was a child," is correct.

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"I have had it" is the correct answer because the first one used "have been" and "had" in one phrase, which makes it grammatically wrong.

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    "I have been had", usually contracted to "I've been had", is a common expression that is not grammatically incorrect. (Not that it's remotely applicable to the OP's case.)
    – nnnnnn
    Commented May 28, 2016 at 14:21
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The auxiliary verb "be" is usually followed by the present participle (as in "having") rather than the past participle (as in "had"). Thus, "I have been had it" is not a valid phrase. Even if you wrote "I have been having it", it would be wrong because "have" is a verb that expresses a state, not a repeated action (as in "I have been coughing all day"). By contrast, "I have had it", from your second example, is fine.

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