3

I was watching a video about travelling around the world. They had covered 12 countries in three months.

I wanted to leave a comment but was not sure if sentence 1 and sentence 2 are different in meaning.

Sentence 1: The XXX Country residents (e.g. the German, the Japanese, the Spanish) were nice.
Sentence 2: The XXX Country residents were nice people.

  • I don't think using "The XXX country residents" is appropriate. For example, "The United Kingdom residents were nice (or nice people)" would not be a good sentence. Can you tell us which country you are referring to by "XXX Country"? – user24743 Jun 1 '16 at 17:16
  • Thank you for the help, Rathony. I have added some examples of these XXX country residents – kitty Jun 1 '16 at 18:10
2

There really isn't much of a difference between the two sentences.

The [group of people] were nice.

is the same as saying

The [group of people] were nice people.

because the people after the nice is implied because the subject of the sentence are people already (a group of people are people, otherwise it'd be a group of something else).

The second sentence explicitly states what the word nice is referring to.

3

They are the same! The second sentence just has a little more description with it. "Nice" is the adjective you're using to describe the residents in both sentences.

Here's what each sentence is referring to (using "Germans" as an example):

Sentence 1: The Germans were nice.

Sentence 2: The Germans were nice people.

Same exact meaning, slightly different (grammatically) as to which specific word "nice" refers to.

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.