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Why do we use "been" in present perfect passive tense but not in active.

1) I have bought a house.

2) A house has been bought by me.

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    "To be + p.p." passive formula. "Have/has + p.p." present perfect formula. Now if we use passive formula in present perfect formula we should use the p.p form of "to be" which is "been" ---> "have/has + been+ p.p." present perfect passive. – user33000 Jun 3 '16 at 21:01
  • . . . has been bought by me. Prepositions take the object form of pronouns, not the possessive form. – StoneyB Jun 3 '16 at 21:09
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First of all, look at a sentence in the present tense:

I love her

To put that into passive mood, we

  1. move the object to the start of the sentence
  2. convert the verb ("love") to a passive participle — that's a kind of adjective. We then need to 3) add a verb be to join the original object to the passive participle.

She is loved

A verb in present perfect simple is have + past participle, for example have bought. To convert a present perfect simple sentence to passive voice, we

  1. move the object to the start of the sentence,
  2. convert the verb to a passive participle (which is the same as the past participle) and
  3. insert the past participle of be, which is been.

I have bought a house

A house has been bought by me.

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