What's the difference in meaning between these two sentence
"I would have thought Tom was the best expert in this stackoverflow.com"
I would think Tom is the best expert in this stackoverflow.com."
I've been told that I would think/expect/say/imagine/ etc are used for:
- tentativeness or creating distance from what we say
- For politeness or to be indirect
- Giving opinion with softness . . . .
Or mixture of them.
Now, I'm still confused in the use of I would have+p.p which is said to be used for "disagreeing with someone or giving opinion." I would think that giving opinion is itself contradicting or disagreeing with someone. So, I still could say that "I would think" and "I would have thought" give the same meanings.
I have been told that "I would have thought" refers to both past and present. That's why, I'm puzzled between its meanings whether to use it for contradicting or for giving opinion?
On the other hand, this phrase also seems like conditional ( If he had told me ,I would have thought about it ) but the if clause left out. But it doesn't give such meanings either. So it's useless to say that this phrase is conditional. what would Am i right? As I said before,I have been told that it's used for both "disagreeing with someone and giving the opinion". It suggests that this phrase is an idiom (as it doesn't give its literal meaning) and works both for contradicting and giving an opinion.
Is "I would have thought"** is the same as **"I had thought before" ?
Does it mean that "i would have thought" is used for both giving openion and disagreeing with someone politely or without being direct ?
As I've learned that "I would think" is used for giving openion ,politeness , showing uncertainty,softening etc "I would have thought" should also share the same characteristics as It's only past version of "I would think".
Example: A: She died of a broken heart. B: Really? I would have thought that she died from an overdose of drugs.
'B' could also use "I would think" to show his opinion but why did he use "I would have thought' ?
He could also use "I thought" to show his opinion but He didn't use it why?
I think that 'B' made that statement ( Really! I would have thought she died from an overdose of drugs ) for clearification of the A 's statement.Is it just like the following example?
A.Do you know , Mt Everest is located in India. B.Really! I would have thought it's in Nepal.
A.Buddha was born in china. B. But I would have thought he was born in Nepal.
further querries :
Is the phrase "I would have thought" means "I think" with more polite deference, more indirect and with more than necessary words ( "I think" is enough to convey the same meaning but "i would have thought" includes unnecessary words: 'would have') As you said this phrase is used for both purpose in past and present time reference ,depending on the condition: 1.for diagreeing with someone politely 2.for expressing an earlier opinion politely( the opinion which was in the past and but no longer exist)
(Note:I had asked a similar question but It wasn't about the difference between this two phrase )