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I'll talk to you in thirty minutes, be here then.

Does the above sentence mean The speaker wants to talk to someone in thirty minutes, and wants them to be present where the talk is supposed to take place?

And is the given sentence grammatically correct?

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    Yes, but those are actually two sentences and should be separated with a semicolon. While it is otherwise grammatically OK, it is rather demanding. Even if you are the person's supervisor, it would be better to write something like this: "I'll talk to you in thirty minutes; please be here then or let me know if you cannot make it. If the latter, please suggest another time for us to meet. Thank you." – Mark Hubbard Jun 22 '16 at 16:03
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Yes, it is correct.

The speaker wants to talk to someone in thirty minutes, and wants them to be present where the talk is supposed to take place [added: at the time when the talk is supposed to take place]?

@MarkHubbard Imagine this is a father and son situation :)

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    The speaker says he wants the other person to be here, which leads to the contextually implicit assertion that the talk will take place where the speaker is when he makes the statement. And then simply refers back to in 30 minutes [time] ("then" = 30m later than when he makes the statement). – FumbleFingers Jun 22 '16 at 16:33

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