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I understand 'dictated by' but what does it mean by 'dictated to by'?Secondly,'lot at the mansion' is understood but 'up at the mansion' again confuses me.

  • Sorry, I don't understand your question. Can you please provide the text containing this quote? You have provided an image, but many people cannot use imgur.com.
    – JavaLatte
    Jun 26 '16 at 10:42
  • 1
    I think the to belongs to the verb dictate to
    – Cardinal
    Jun 26 '16 at 10:45
  • Source : google.co.in/… , edited, hope it is clear now. Jun 26 '16 at 10:47
  • We live in a society that is dictated to by rules.
    – Cardinal
    Jun 26 '16 at 10:55
  • What is difference between 'dictated to by rules' and 'dictated by rules'? Jun 26 '16 at 11:13

I will not be dictated to by that lot up by the mansion.

Dictate to is a phrasal verb. See Cambridge dictionary and The Free Doctionary.

by that lot is a prepositional phrase. It gives you the agent of will not be dictated to, which is a passive construction.

at the mansion is is a prepositional phrase showing where that lot is located.

up means "in a high position." (Cambridge). You can take it out of the sentence and the sentence would still be grammatical. Or the sentence could have a different 'directional' word such as over or down.

Up means that the lot at the mansion are somehow higher than the speaker. A typical meaning would be that the mansion (the whole mansion) is at a higher altitude than where the speaker is, or where the speaker usually is. Down at the mansion would mean the opposite. See Definition 1b, and the example sentences of 1b, in the Merriam Webster Learner's Dictionary.

  • The 'up' is still unclear, 'up at' means people on the upper floor of the mansion? Jun 26 '16 at 12:37
  • It's common and mostly okay to combine up/down with other prepositions expressing location, it combines the meanings. E.g. I was down outside of the pool means you were both down and outside of the pool. You can throw an and in between to be more clear - I was down and outside of the pool.
    – LawrenceC
    Jun 26 '16 at 14:36
  • @AnubhavSingh: No, "up at" has nothing whatever to do with the upper floor. It is logically no different from "at", but has a connotation of implying that people at the mansion as a whole are "up" from here. This might be literal (the mansion is on top of a hill) or it might be metaphorical (the people at the mansion are upper class).
    – Colin Fine
    Jun 26 '16 at 18:36

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