He knew she dare not tell her father.
Kim daren’t tell them so I had to do it myself.
-- The Cambridge Grammar of the English Language, p109n
My mother tongue, Korean, has tense inflectional options: to have tense agreement in a sentence or to put tense inflection only onto the last verb. The example cases remind me the Korean rule. So when I interpret English in my brain two or more past tenses in a sentence, I naturally ignore the other past tenses except one.
What I now want to know is that the pattern of the above cases be only restricted to ‘dare’, or are there more cases that in a sentence one verb is past, and the other present?
(I know in some cases, present perfect is replaced by simple tense for a kind of simplification.)