"Did anybody said something?" is an incorrect sentence grammatically, but I don't get why.

This might be an excessively silly question, but I am new to the English Language.

  • 1
    Did anybody say something? is perfectly grammatical (but not a common question to ask). Your version is syntactically invalid because you've already inflected did for tense, so the associated main verb should be an unmarked infinitive. Jul 19 '16 at 12:14
  • Per the first comment on the original, You cannot have two finite forms in the same verbal unit. Jul 19 '16 at 12:17
  • if im not mistaken, you can keep the 'said' by saying "has anybody said something?"
    – downrep_nation
    Jul 19 '16 at 12:30
  • exactly @AlanCarmack
    – Boris
    Jul 20 '16 at 18:02

When adding a does/doesn't/did/didn't to a sentence, the main verb returns to it's base form (V1 instead of V2). That's why you say:

She didn't like me

And not

She didn't liked me

And that's why you ask:

Did he go to the gym?

And not

Did he went to the gym?

  • and all these things are happening in past
    – Boris
    Jul 20 '16 at 13:47
  • Oh, you're right. I have given wrong examples. Let me fix that Jul 20 '16 at 13:58
  • V1 and V2 have zero meaning to me and probably for most people, in this context . Jul 20 '16 at 14:57
  • @AlanCarmack Can you explain why they have zero meaning? Jul 20 '16 at 15:09
  • @YotamSalmon It's zero meaning because you're showing a notation you only know because of what you were taught. You should add parentheses to explain away the notation you used.
    – Schwale
    Jul 20 '16 at 15:45

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