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I did not found any error though my teacher told there's.

Why is it grammatically incorrect?

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    Unrelated to your question, but one would normally use there are in your example, since errors is plural as well. Your question remains the same, of course, because there're would not feel right either.
    – oerkelens
    Jul 22 '16 at 18:56
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Although 's is sometimes used to abbreviate "is," (the 3rd person singular present indicative of the verb "To be") this usage is not acceptable in every instance. We cannot simply replace "is" with 's wherever it occurs.

When we use an apostrophe in this way, we call it a contraction. In English, we almost never end a sentence with a contraction unless it is an abbreviation of the negative word "not," which is n't, or, rarely, the word "have," which is 've. Some examples of acceptable usage are:

Did he win? No, he didn't.
Could he have won? Yes, he could've.

The technical, grammatical reasons for this are explained well here. For learners of English, it is enough to follow the rule:

Never end a sentence with a contraction unless it is n't or 've.

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The contraction "there's" is used to replace "there is" when you want to emphasize the following word (There's nothing wrong with this sentence. )

In your question, the word that would normally be emphasized is is itself, so you would not use the contraction: I was told by someone there is.

The thanks go to Adam for writing this text.

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