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If this 'would' were 'would have p.p', is it not a irrealis but past form of would?

Then she remembered; Paul and Minta and Andrew had not come back. She summoned before her again the little group on the terrace in front of the hall door, standing looking up into the sky. Andrew had his net and basket. That meant he was going to catch crabs and things. That meant he would climb out on to a rock; he would be cut off. Or coming back single file on one of those little paths above the cliff one of them might slip. He would roll and then crash. It was growing quite dark.
(Virginia Woolf, To the Lighthouse)

[He would roll and then crash] is at the past reference time and when we foreshift this it would be [He will roll and then crash].

If the original sentence were [He would have rolled and then crashed], it would not a irrealis, but just a backshifted form from [He would roll and then crash]. And it puts more psychological distance from the original probability. Is this right?

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