118 votes

"He borrowed me some money."; right or wrong?

You could, in theory, however it would only cause confusion in my opinion. For the sake of clarity, I would go with "he borrowed some money for me."
Mark's user avatar
  • 891
53 votes
Accepted

"He borrowed me some money."; right or wrong?

Yes, in the proper context, that is grammatical. It would mean that he borrowed money on your behalf. It is colloquial, not formal. The use of such 'ethical dative' constructions is regional. I ...
TimR's user avatar
  • 121k
46 votes

Why can't you say "A doll was made me by my sister"?

For some reason, English allows you to turn a prepositional phrase (“My sister made a doll for me”) into an indirect object (“My sister made me a doll”), called a dative shift, or to turn an active-...
Michael Lorton's user avatar
43 votes

What does "I made him a cake" mean?

Your interpretation 1 is correct - I made him a cake means the same as I made a cake for him. This is indeed a common construction in English, and would generally be understood. There is a subtle ...
Werrf's user avatar
  • 5,600
26 votes

What does "I made him a cake" mean?

In English, you will commonly encounter sentences of the form: Subject - Verb - Indirect Object - Direct Object, where the direct object (cake/warning/present) describes "on what" the verb is acting ...
Jimmy's user avatar
  • 608
17 votes
Accepted

Is it right that "to adults" is obligatory as in "I taught English to adults"?

"I taught English" is a complete, correct sentence. "I taught English to adults" is also a complete, correct sentence. Native speakers of English are likely to understand "I ...
zwol's user avatar
  • 1,233
15 votes

"He borrowed me some money."; right or wrong?

Wiktionary says: (double transitive) To temporarily obtain (something) for (someone). Quotations 1681 “Trial of Sir Miles Stapleton”, in State Trials, 33 Charles II, page 516: Yes,...
jcaron's user avatar
  • 303
14 votes

Is it right that "to adults" is obligatory as in "I taught English to adults"?

If a verb requires a subject or a direction then you must include it otherwise the sentence is not complete, for example: "She put the dish..." This is not correct because there is no direction ...
Astralbee's user avatar
  • 96.3k
14 votes

Why can't you say "A doll was made me by my sister"?

Syntactic restrictions on distransitive passivization: Why you can be baked a cake yet a cake can never be baked you Collins Dictionary notes, with formatting emphasis added by me: If the indirect ...
tchrist's user avatar
  • 8,127
7 votes

"He borrowed me some money."; right or wrong?

The shortest way (I can come up with) for saying someone who has borrowed money from another person or entity in order to lend it to a third party would be the following He borrowed money to ...
Mari-Lou A's user avatar
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6 votes
Accepted

When should I use: me or to me?

Some verbs take "to" as preposition. It depends on the position of direct and indirect object in the sentence: For example: Give me the book. "the book" is the direct object of "give", and "me" ...
Ahmad's user avatar
  • 8,869
6 votes

When should I use: me or to me?

"Answer me" means "give me an answer" (or "say something".) "Answer to me" is quite different, and means "Report [answer] to me and no one else": Remember: you answer to me and no one else. "Love ...
Mick's user avatar
  • 6,536
6 votes

Relative pronoun "whom" used as an indirect object of a verb with two objects

(A small issue that doesn't relate to the grammaticality: it seems unnatural to me to use a defining relative clause after a proper noun, at least in this particular sentence. So I'm going to use ...
sumelic's user avatar
  • 7,038
6 votes
Accepted

I'm gonna listen it or I'm gonna TO listen it?

gonna = going to. If you use the second one, you'll say I'm going to to listen it. But you need to use listen to, so you get I'm gonna listen to it.
Schwale's user avatar
  • 3,889
6 votes

What does "I made him a cake" mean?

Some verbs, (known as ditransitive) have both a direct and an indirect object, which can be expressed either way round; but if the direct object comes first, the indirect requires its preposition "to":...
Colin Fine's user avatar
  • 73.7k
5 votes

'lose your money' or 'lose money for you'

When we use the verb win, for example, it often takes an Indirect Object and a Direct Object: It will win [you] [money]. Here, the Indirect Object, you, represents the person who is going to get ...
Araucaria - Not here any more.'s user avatar
5 votes
Accepted

"We met the students whom you taught English." Versus "We met the students whom you taught English to."

First, the “who/whom” distinction has just about disappeared in spoken American English except among very careful users. (I do not know about British English.) Second, let’s start with direct and ...
Jeff Morrow's user avatar
  • 31.9k
4 votes
Accepted

'lose your money' or 'lose money for you'

The game will lose money for you means that by playing the game, by way of the game you lose your money. Only by you playing the game do you lose money. No play, no loss. In other words, only ...
Peter's user avatar
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4 votes
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Post to/for_the difference?

They can mean significantly different things: I'll post those letters for you. This can be slightly ambiguous... while it can mean the same as "to you", it can also mean that you are volunteering ...
Catija's user avatar
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4 votes
Accepted

"Asking the driver" or "Asking to the driver"?

The correct one is just 'ask'; 'ask to' is not grammatical. There is also a usage 'ask of' - it's formal and a bit archaic, and basically means 'please'. "I would ask of you that you show some ...
John Feltz's user avatar
  • 5,126
4 votes
Accepted

determining indirect object pronoun

To make it easier to see the issue, let's remove two words, although and not from your phrase. "I show it to you." Now it is easy to see that it is the direct object (answering the question "what is ...
Gary's Student's user avatar
4 votes

"He borrowed me some money."; right or wrong?

I think it's gramatically OK, but I'd avoid using it. I've heard it used colloquially (Black Country, UK), but it had/has a slightly different meaning to the one I think you mean. In that "He ...
Algy Taylor's user avatar
4 votes
Accepted

"Give him it"/"Give it to him" vs. "Give John it"/"Give it to John"

Its correct, but as Kate says "awkward". The problem seems to be one of "end weight". Fluent English sentences tend to put longer structures at the end. Give John the book. This follows this ...
James K's user avatar
  • 204k
4 votes
Accepted

Usage of "paid" and "paid for"

The verb paid takes objects that are the method of payment: credit cards, cash, seashells, etc. You could say "The money has already been paid." The verb paid for takes objects that are the ...
randomhead's user avatar
3 votes
Accepted

Does **accomplish** have an object in the following sentence?

I suggest what is the object of to accomplish what economic policies are able to accomplish economic policies are able to accomplish what?
djna's user avatar
  • 7,568
3 votes
Accepted

offer him of offer to him? lent him or lent to him?

In both of these examples, him can be use either as an indirect object, which is placed between the verb and the object: 1) I offered him a job. or as part of a to-prepositional phrase, which is ...
JavaLatte's user avatar
  • 59.1k
3 votes

offer him of offer to him? lent him or lent to him?

This is known as dative shift. Not all verbs can be alternated like this, but for those that can, the meanings are equivalent. You may depending on context hear one version more often than the other.
eques's user avatar
  • 4,485
3 votes

About the object of a verb followed by "to"

In the sentence: I sang Mary a song The first Object, Mary, is the Indirect Object—the person that 'gets' the song. The phrase a song is the Direct Object—the thing being given. If we ...
Araucaria - Not here any more.'s user avatar
3 votes

'lose your money' or 'lose money for you'

We have a saying in English: “to be a money-losing proposition”. No matter what you do, you will consistently lose your money in the venture. That seems to be the case here. I assume it’s Roulette, or ...
Cascabel_StandWithUkraine_'s user avatar
3 votes

Can "describe" take two objects?

I would only consider option 1 to be standard usage. Certain verbs take both a direct (in your example, "the situation") and indirect ("me") object, and are known as "...
Jez W's user avatar
  • 797

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