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Function of prepositional phrase after to+be

The park is my favorite place to [be with my friends]. Generally speaking, "be" in an infinitive phrase does not act as a linking verb. The infinitive phrase itself acts as a noun phrase, ...
gotube's user avatar
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2 votes

Difference between "play in defense", "play on defense" and "play defense"

I'm American and not familiar with the usage in example (1), but in American usage examples (2) and (3) are essentially equivalent, and in my experience example (3) is more common. Example (2) "...
The Photon's user avatar
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1 vote

"Items should be paid for within 14 days <of> <after> receipt." — What's the difference between "of" and "after" here?

I agree with what others have said in comments and +1 to FF. I want to add that your sentence (2) doesn't work because "within 14 days" and "after receipt" scan as two separate ...
gotube's user avatar
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2 votes

"Items should be paid for within 14 days <of> <after> receipt." — What's the difference between "of" and "after" here?

As has been pointed out in comments, you can't use both within and after in this context. The dictionary example... Items should be paid for within 14 days of receipt ...is fine, but if the OP wants ...
FumbleFingers's user avatar
0 votes

"I didn’t see her again (until) a few days afterwards." — How does "until" affect the meaning of the sentence?

Firstly, afterwards is awkward; later is more natural. I.e. (1) reads better as, 'I didn't see her again until three days later'. The simple answer to your question is that until is never optional in ...
CraigF's user avatar
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0 votes

"I didn’t see her again (until) a few days afterwards." — How does "until" affect the meaning of the sentence?

Until sets a limit at which point some condition ends. The structure will be: [some condition continues] until [a second condition occurs ending the first condition.] Ex. You must wait at the red ...
Michael Curtis's user avatar
0 votes

"I didn’t see her again (until) a few days afterwards." — How does "until" affect the meaning of the sentence?

"A few days afterwards" is ambiguous out of context. Is it a point in time, or is it a span of time? "Until a few days afterwards" makes it clear that it is a point in time being ...
nigel222's user avatar
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-1 votes

"I didn’t see her again (until) a few days afterwards." — How does "until" affect the meaning of the sentence?

I didn’t see her again a few days afterwards. ...means someone might have expected you to see her a few days afterwards, but in fact you didn't! The until completely changes the phrase by qualifying ...
Francesco Dondi's user avatar
10 votes
Accepted

"I didn’t see her again (until) a few days afterwards." — How does "until" affect the meaning of the sentence?

"A few days" is a length of time. In the right context, the "for" is understood, as in your example with "waited". "A few days afterwards", however, is a point ...
gotube's user avatar
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3 votes

"I didn’t see her again (until) a few days afterwards." — How does "until" affect the meaning of the sentence?

The only times I can think of, where your second version without until would be idiomatic, is in response to a question in which you are denying the assertion of the question: Prosecutor: Isn't it ...
TimR's user avatar
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10 votes

"I didn’t see her again (until) a few days afterwards." — How does "until" affect the meaning of the sentence?

QUESTION: (1) I didn’t see her again until a few days afterwards. my variant: (2) I didn’t see her again a few days afterwards. They mean different things. means a few days went by and then you saw ...
Lambie's user avatar
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0 votes

"I didn’t see her again (until) a few days afterwards." — How does "until" affect the meaning of the sentence?

The sentence makes no sense without until. If you 'didn't see her again' full stop - never again - why mention 'a few days afterwards'? (1) means that a few days afterwards was the first time you saw ...
Kate Bunting's user avatar
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