I am reading 'Justice' from M.J. Sandel and he quoted the story from another author to criticize utilitarian as follows:
...
If the child were brought up into the sunlight out of the vile place, if it were cleaned and fed and comforted, that would be a good thing indeed, but if it were done, in the day and hour all the prosperity and beauty and delight of Omelas would wither and be destroyed.
...
If the child were brought up into the sunlight out of the vile place, if it were cleaned and fed and comforted, that would be a good thing indeed, but if it were done, in the day and hour all the prosperity and beauty and delight of Omelas would wither and be destroyed.
What am I wondering is that why plural verb 'were' was used for the verb of 'child' or 'it' which is singular noun? Isn't 'was' correct?
