Timeline for In this phrase "none of + plural noun", why can the predicate use both singular form and plural form?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
6 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Jun 16, 2020 at 9:11 | history | edited | CommunityBot |
Commonmark migration
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| May 14, 2014 at 7:32 | history | tweeted | twitter.com/#!/StackEnglishLL/status/466481108973289472 | ||
| May 14, 2014 at 7:18 | answer | added | Maulik V | timeline score: 1 | |
| May 14, 2014 at 6:51 | comment | added | user3169 | I think the last one should be "But none of them own the landscape.". | |
| May 14, 2014 at 6:50 | history | edited | Lucian Sava | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
edited body; edited title
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| May 14, 2014 at 6:45 | history | asked | user48070 | CC BY-SA 3.0 |