It is from this video. It is at 7 minute and 13 second. Here is the context:

So, you should add as much high quality salt as tastes good on your next meal.

Does the speaker mean that one should add as much salt as they wants provided that if tastes good, or one should add it because it tastes good? Anyway, why did he omitted the pronoun it?

  • Out of curiosity, where do you think the word it should go? – stangdon Sep 4 '18 at 13:47
  • I think part of your confusion is the verb tastes itself. Compare: You should tip the taxi driver as much as seems appropriate on your next ride. In the original, you are the taster; in that taxi example, you are the judge who determines what is appropriate: as much as seems appropriate to you and as much as tastes good to you. – Tᴚoɯɐuo Sep 4 '18 at 14:26
  • It seems a good bargain (to me). It tastes rancid (to me). – Tᴚoɯɐuo Sep 4 '18 at 14:32
  • stangdon: Right after the word "as" – Dmytro O'Hope Sep 4 '18 at 16:33
  • So would it be more gramatical to say one should add as much high quality salt as it tastes good? – Dmytro O'Hope Sep 4 '18 at 16:38

It has neither meaning. That "as ... as" locution means "add the exact amount of salt that tastes good to you." The second "as" acts as a "that."

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