It's a very interesting question. And there is no meaning difference between "no + singular noun" and "no + plural noun".
- No beggars were allowed in the King's court premises.
- No beggar was allowed in the King's court premises.
There is no difference in meaning between these two sentences, but notice how the main verb (here "allow") changes depending on the noun after "no", in this case "beggar".
With countable noun, "no + plural noun" is much more common than "no + singular noun". Though both form is correct and well accepted.
- Come winter, and you will find no leaves in trees.
- Come winter, and you will find no leaf in trees.
Sentence no. 1 is more widely used than sentence no. 2. Though both are correct and used, and bear no difference in meaning.
So, it's basically a call of style, and one's personal choice, but in some cases it depends on contexts and in those cases one is correct over the other.
- He was left with no wife and no children. (see after "no" both a singular noun ("wife") and a plural noun ("children") is used. As
normally a man has only one wife, so considering this it's advisable
to use "no wife" here)