Why do you use the definite article with words like 'hairdresser' or 'barber'? Does it imply that each person in English-speaking countries has their own personal hairdresser so you each time go to one particular specialist? Articles usage, it seems, sometimes reflects the culture and history of the UK and US. For example, I heard that you say 'go to the cinema' (not 'a cinema') because formerly a city had only one movie theater (if any). Now, what if a person doesn't go each time to the same man or woman to get their hair cut? Is it acceptable to just say 'go to a hairdresser' or 'go to a hairdresser parlor'?
Besides (I'm not sure whether I should create a new question for this), why do you also say 'go to the hairdresser's' (I mean, use the possessive case)? I believe it's a contraction of 'the hairdresser's parlor' but no parlor has only one hairdresser! Who's that 'THE hairdresser'? The owner? But the owner doesn't cut hair personally (usually). It would be more logical if it were 'a hairdressers'' or 'a hairdressers' parlor'. Please explain why it's the way it is.