I have learned "a grammar rule " in one grammar book : It is/has been (a period of time) since something that can continue for a period of time happened = It is/has been (a period of time) since the time point that something was finsihed
First question: I want to know whether this "rule" is correct or not.
Second question: If the since clause use perfect tense, do these sentences have same meaning?
For example:
It is/has been 3 years since I worked in the company.
It is/has been 3 years since I have worked in the company.
It is/has been 3 years since my father smoked.
It is/has been 3 years since my father have smoked.
It is/has been 3 years since I studied in the university.
It is/has been 3 years since I have studied in the university.
It is/has been 3 years since I was a doctor.
It is/has been 3 years since I have been a doctor.
It is/has been 3 years since I lived here.
It is/has been 3 years since I have lived here.
6 A: You’ve grown very confident since you worked for Francis.
A: You’ve grown very confident since you worked for Francis.
B: I’ve always been confident.
House of Cards , Season 1, episode 8 or should I understand in this way?