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Grammatically, present perfect + point of time = simple past.

She has returned two days ago.
(omit "has" to make it correct.)

Similarly:

She has owned this parlour since 2002
(it is correct)

As per the above rule, should not we be omitting "has" in the second sentence to make it correct?

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The present perfect is a present tense, and the simple past is a past tense, and this is what governs what temporal expressions can be used with each.

  • The present perfect can only be used with expressions which include the present. That's why you can't say "She has returned two days ago", because two days ago is over-and-done-with, it doesn't include the present moment. However, you can say "She has owned this parlour since 2002", because since 2002 designates a timespan which stretches up to the present moment.

  • The past can only be used with expressions which include the past but not the present; that's why you can't say "I saw him now", because now designates a timespan which includes the present. But you can say "I saw him just now*, because just now is taken to designate a moment in the very recent past.

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  • Having the following: I can't go out because I broke my leg. What happens there when there's no time expression, is it still incorrect? I know the perfect tense is used in my example. – Alejandro Dec 20 '15 at 21:51
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    @Subjunctive That's fine with either past or perfect in AmE. Some BrE speakers may be a little uncomfortable with the past. – StoneyB on hiatus Dec 20 '15 at 21:54
  • As per your example, I believe this sentence is also wrong: This house belongs to me since my birth. (Since my birth is a time span therefore has belonged). Please suggest. Thank you. – Seema Bhukar Dec 25 '15 at 14:08
  • @SeemaBhukar Quite right. Simple present verbs are rare with temporal since clauses, because the "present" which the simple present designates itself usually includes any relevant past moment. – StoneyB on hiatus Dec 25 '15 at 14:14

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