Please explain, "he had worked" and both (1) and (2) are okay, or "he had worked" and (2)?

Thank you for the answers. By the way, the second sentence is from here "englishclub.com/grammar/…".

Thank you. I just heard from a native that that sentence is not idiomatic at least and I should use "The translation (of the article) is taking all day." instead of that.

Thank you. I confused by previous explanations. Do I understand correctly, you are saying this is correct "It was several years since I had been travelling that road"? If so, could you say in simple terms what this sentence means? "Some time has passed after the start of the travel, but I am still travelling" or "I traleved for some time, then I stopped travelling, and some time had passed after it"?

So, if you do not pay attention to the method of contraction, "There is not room in" (without "any") is acceptable? I used to think that "There is no room in..." is only correct (or "There is not any room in...", as PPH said).