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"Do mine ears deceive me?" said Fred, ...

Harry Potter

I'm wondering if there is any difference from "Do my ears deceive me?". In "mine ears", I think the word mine is an appositive to 'ears', right?

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    The archaism is meant to be understood as a kind of humor when used in conversation.
    – TimR
    Commented Jan 30, 2019 at 14:22

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It is fixed archaic expression. In modern English we use "my" for the possessive; in archaic language, mine and thine may be used in place of my and thy when followed by a vowel sound. This is similar to the still current use of "an" when followed by a vowel sound.

You can also use this in the form "Do my ears..." to express surprise or doubt at something you are being told. But like most of these clichés, it is mostly used as a joke.

In other contexts, just use my for the possesive, and mine to mean "my one"

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    Not dost, that's 2nd person.
    – TimR
    Commented Jan 30, 2019 at 14:18

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