When talking about a theoretical situation in the past - in the present case this sentence: "It is because those people (theoretical) would not have had been (action) - is it correct to use "have had been"?
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1 Answer
There may be some dialects that use this, but it's not grammatical in any standard English that I am aware of.
Auxiliary have can be followed by the past participle of the main verb:
They have seen him.
They have had dinner.
or by been (ppt of "be") for continuous or passive:
They have been seeing him.
The have been seen by him.
but not by any other auxiliary
answered Feb 3, 2020 at 19:10
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@folopolo: that's not grammatical. Modals such as would must be followed by the base form of the next verb, even if it is an auxiliary. would not have been. Commented Feb 4, 2020 at 17:23