A grammar teacher claims that 'so' is NOT a conjunction. Assume this for this question.
Example Sentence: 1. It is the same before a Fire; the Heat of which sooner penetrates black Stockings than white ones, and so [IT] is apt sooner to burn a Man’s Shins.
2. It is the same before a Fire; the Heat of which sooner penetrates black Stockings than white ones ; so IT is apt sooner to burn a Man’s Shins.
3. It is the same before a Fire; the Heat of which sooner penetrates black Stockings than white ones ; so is apt sooner to burn a Man’s Shins.
2 and 3 are my rewrites of 1 with a semicolon. If 2 is right (but 3 wrong), why must you repeat the personal pronoun after a semicolon, but can omit the personal pronoun absent a semicolon?
Are 1 and 2 NOT equivalent semantically?