I'm not a native English speaker.
We were supposed to use the verb be instead of the verb belong using possessive pronouns.
The question is
The answer given by some is
Isn't it simpler to say:
Sorry for bringing a confusing issue and not stating it properly.
Thanks a lot. I appreciate your concern very much. I enjoy learning English.
As Jason said, you are correct:
*Do those toys are hers?
Is ungrammatical. The correct form of this question is:
Are those toys hers?
or
Whose are those toys?
When we ask questions in English we use subject-auxiliary inversion. In the sentence: These toys belong to her when we ask a question the auxiliary do is inverted with the subject these toys. The verb belong is called the main verb.
The difference between Do those toys belong to her? and Are those toys hers? comes from the difference in the nature (in lack of a better word) of verbs to be and to belong.
Be is the copula in this sentence. With copular be we don't use an auxiliary to form questions - the inversion occurs between the verb to be and the subject and you get:
(S) Those toys (V) are hers.
(V) Are (S) those toys hers?
Aside: Whether to be as a copula is an auxiliary verb is apparently a matter of linguistic debate, but in asking questions and forming negations it follows the same rules as an auxiliary.
