0

Pronouns like “myself” and “himself” can also be used to add emphasis to a sentence, and when they are, they’re called intensive pronouns—same words, just a different name because they're used differently.

For example, if you witnessed a murder, you could say, “I myself saw the madman's handiwork.”

but when using it, do I say myself do or myself does?
(Google doc is auto correcting my "myself do" to "myself does", hence I'm confirming)

So, what is the correct way to say it,

  • I'll make sure that me myself taste it for you.
  • I'll make sure that me myself tastes it for you.
2
  • 4
    in both of your sample sentences, it should be "I" not "me". Think about if you said the sentence without the "myself": you wouldn't say "I'll make sure that me taste it for you."
    – Esther
    Apr 25, 2022 at 15:42
  • 3
    additionally, you would use the same verb as if you completely ommitted "myself," so in your question it would be the first sentence. The correct way of saying it is "I'll make sure that I myself taste it for you" or "I'll make sure I taste it for you myself."
    – Esther
    Apr 25, 2022 at 15:44

1 Answer 1

4

It should be "... I myself taste it".

The pronoun with an emphatic "myself" is unchanged by the presence of "myself". So since you would say "I'll make sure that I taste it for you", You'd say "I'll make sure that I myself taste it for you."

The verb form agrees with the subject "I" and is not affected by the presence of the emphatic "myself". So you would have:

I myself taste / he himself tastes.

Don't overuse this construction. While it is valid English, it is rather rare. It's unusual in written English, and in casual spoken English. So it is mostly restricted to formal spoken English.

You must log in to answer this question.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged .