1. The IAIT was supposed to be domestically-funded and carry out human rights related activities in India, using these funds.

When I checked this sentence in grammarly (grammer checker), it showed the sentence to be grammatically wrong, when I used the comma before 'using'.

  1. "Gotabaya lost his temper with Mahinda in front of others, blaming him for the crisis "

But In second sentence using comma before "blaming " was right (In grammerly).

So, I want proper answer with explanation regarding the use of comma in first sentence and second sentence, where in first sentence use of comma is wrong and in second it is right. What is the logic ???

1 Answer 1


If 'these funds' refers to the 'domestic' funding, the sentence would be better punctuated as:

The IAIT was supposed to be domestically-funded, and [to] carry out human rights related activities in India using these funds.

I have used a comma to separate the two things that the IAIT was 'supposed' to do. If you let the first two clauses run on without a break, it's awkward to separate off the last three words with a comma.

  • With due respect, it is not the proper answer of my question. My question is why in first using comma is wrong which in second it is right??
    – Ansh
    Jul 27, 2022 at 13:01
  • It sounds wrong to put a comma there when you haven't put a comma after 'funded'. Jul 27, 2022 at 13:08

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