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What is the difference between not using a comma when the subject has two verbs and parallel structure when the subject is omitted?

Two independent clauses: “ President Obama addressed Congress, and he called for higher taxes for the wealthy.”

Subject and two verbs—Do not use a comma when the subject has two verbs: “ President Obama addressed Congress and called for higher taxes for the wealthy.”

Parallel structure—Eliminate repeated elements: “ President Obama addressed Congress, and called for higher taxes for the wealthy.”

Every book explains that if you use two independent clauses you need to separate them with a comma.

But if you have a subject that has two verbs, you cannot use a comma.

However, when you apply parallel structure with two independent clauses, you should be able to get rid of the subject and keep the comma.

So my question above is if you can apply the parallel-structure rule, the two-verbs rule is not a rule, but a guideline.

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    There is no reason to use a comma because buying something was the reason for going to the store. Commented Jan 17 at 9:12
  • But what if I write: I read a book, and went to the gym.
    – Piermo
    Commented Jan 17 at 14:49
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    In that case the comma is appropriate. Commented Jan 17 at 15:01
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    I said that the comma was appropriate because the two activities are so different and obviously happened one after the other; leaving out the comma sounds as though you are trying to say that you did them both together. In real life you would probably say something like "I read my book for a while and then went to the gym." Commented Jan 17 at 15:39
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    @Piermo You need a comma after "apples", but that's all. The subject of "went" and "dug" is understood as "she". Note that "then went outside and dug in the garden" is not a coordinate but an adjunct.
    – BillJ
    Commented Jan 18 at 15:48

1 Answer 1

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[1] [She went to the store] and [she bought an apple].

[2] She [went to the store] and [bought an apple].

I don't know why you think that a comma is required in [1]; it isn't.

In neither example in speech would the second coordinate be intonationally separate. And the coordination is perfectly clear in writing.

The fact that the coordination in [1] consists of two main clauses while in [2] of two verb phrases makes no difference.

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