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"Does anyone have used this before?" or "has anyone used this before?" which sentence is correct? or both of them are incorrect ? and what is the correct sentence?

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  • What makes you think one is correct and the other incorrect? (Proofreading questions are off-topic unless you identify a point of concern.)
    – Hot Licks
    Commented Jul 2, 2016 at 23:07
  • 4
    only the latter is correct
    – V0ight
    Commented Jul 2, 2016 at 23:07
  • In the first sentence, you use two auxiliaries (does and have) for the same verb. If wou want to use the auxiliary do, the first sentence should be Did anyone use this before.
    – Archa
    Commented Jul 2, 2016 at 23:44

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We use "do support" to form questions and negatives only when there isn't already an auxiliary, such as be, have, or a modal.

When have is acting as a lexical verb it may take "do support":

Do you have any milk?

but it doesn't have to, particularly in British English:

Have you [got] any milk?

But when have is an auxiliary, forming a perfect tense, it cannot take "do support":

Has anyone used this before?

not

*Does anyone have used this before?

(You didn't ask about this, but it's worth specifying:) in the phrasal verb have to, meaning be obliged to", have is not an auxiliary, and may take "do support" in questions and negatives:

I don't have to go.

or

I haven't got to go.

You might even find I haven't to go in old books, but I doubt if there's anybody that says it now.

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    Does one downvote answers to questions obviously not suitable for ELU?
    – Edwin Ashworth
    Commented Jul 3, 2016 at 0:34

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