I got 2 excellent answers to my previous question Why is “iron” pronounced “EYE-URN” but not “EYE-RUN”?. Now I wonder about iron and irony (and ironic). The top voted answer by Void suggests that the current pronunciation of "iron" is because of "metathesis". Why didn't metathesis affect irony?
The Etymology dictionary says: "c. 1500, from Latin ironia, from Greek eironeia "dissimulation, assumed ignorance," from eiron "dissembler," perhaps related to eirein "to speak," "
My best guess would be that it entered the English language long after the metathesis had happened to "iron" and also both "iron" and "irony" have different origins but I can't be sure.
I also came across a question on Quora. One of the answers says "In “iron", the accent is on the i, so the ron was corrupted to just rn. In ironic, the accent is on the ron, so it wasn't shortened." But "iron" and "irony" both have accent on the first syllable, so it's of no help.
So what happened exactly? Am I right or wrong?