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I want to master pronouncing contractions to sound more natural. I think I know the technique to pronounce "It'd be", but to be honest, I'm not sure if it makes much difference to add a stop d after it.

So, are they different? Would you notice immediately if somebody said "It be" instead of "It'd be"?

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    "it be" is grammatically incorrect in standard BrE, although it can be found in some dialects. So yes, it would be noticeable. As an aside there is the following dialect exchange:- How be? [How are you] I be, how be you? [I'm well, how are you?] Commented Jun 6 at 11:05
  • Hmm I'm actually asking about pronunciation. So you meant to say that native speakers can clearly distinguish between "it'd be" and "it be" in speech? Commented Jun 6 at 11:10
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    Yes, if spoken without any significant dialect or accent influence. A native BrE speaker would certainly notice the "d" sound or it's absence in say, RP. Commented Jun 6 at 11:16
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    @PeterJennings - will it be possible to use my UK mobile phone in Canada? Commented Jun 6 at 13:12
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    @PeterJennings - could it be that your statement is over broad? Commented Jun 6 at 14:12

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It sounds like you might have been thinking that it'd could be pronounced in one syllable as [ɪtd], but that pronunciation seems unlikely to me. I would also advise against pronouncing it'd in one syllable as [ɪt] (like it).

You can pronounce it in two syllables, with the 'd corresponding to the sound [əd] (references: Blog post by phonetician John Wells; Teflpedia). For me, as an American English speaker, the t of it would be voiced and "flapped/tapped" in this context because of the following vowel sound: [ɪɾəd]. In other accents, the pronunciation with two syllables might sound like [ɪtəd]. The reason for the apostrophe in this case is to represent the absence of the [w] consonant sound, not to indicate that there is no vowel sound between the t and d.

My intuition is that in quick speech, I often pronounce it'd in one syllable as [ɪd]. Wells mentions [ðæd] as a possible pronunciation of that'd. (He also says "maybe ðæt", but my intuition disagrees with him here.)

When a vowel sound follows, it'd could sound the same as it for me due to flapping/tapping. For example, I think my pronunciation of "It'd have been..." could be transcribed as [ɪɾəvbɪn] (which to my ears sounds like /ɪdəvbɪn/). But in it'd be, the following sound is a consonant: in this position, the distinction between word-final /t/ and /d/ can generally be clearly heard.

You could also keep in mind that when a /d/ sound comes before another plosive consonant in English, the /d/ may have its release "masked" by the second consonant, resulting in a pronunciation that sounds like it has the same "place of articulation" as the second plosive. In this case, that would make it sound like [b]. So [ɪɾədbi] or [ɪdbi] could sound like [ɪɾəbbi] or [ɪbbi] respectively. I'd hesitate to recommend aiming for a pronunciation with [bb] as a target, though: I think I've read that some studies have found native English speakers may actually still put their tongues in the position for making a [d] sound in contexts like this, even if it's hard to acoustically detect this [d] before the following [b]. (Nevertheless, some descriptions do call this a form of assimilation.)

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  • In my UK SouthEast enunciation, even in very relaxed conversational contexts, there'd usually be a clear glottal stop in it'd be for the "under-enunciated" 'd = would element. I can't deny that if I was sufficiently tired / drunk it might be indistinguishable from it be, but hopefully anyone I'm talking to would know that no amount of booze could turn me into a West Country yokel or stereotypical pirate ("Yarrrgh! It be obvious this be pirate speech!) Commented Jun 6 at 14:15
  • @FumbleFingers Heck, I could imagine that glottal stop as even swallowing the "t", for "i'be." Commented Jun 6 at 14:54
  • Thank you so much! This is really enlightening. But now there's another problem. According to your guidance, I feel like in fast speech it'd be and it'll be are really hard to be distinguished. The pronunciations are [ɪɾədbi] and [ɪɾəlbi]. I know that for native speakers it might be obvious, but for us learners they sound really similar in fast speech since you don't spend so much time pronouncing the "l" sound. When pronouncing it'll be in fast speech, I have to transition quickly from the "l" sound to the "b" sound, ... Commented Jun 6 at 15:06
  • ...making it incomplete and hence almost indistinguishable from [ɪɾədbi]. Any tips here? Commented Jun 6 at 15:06
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    @FumbleFingers Today’s XKCD is timely Commented Jun 6 at 17:24
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In my pronunciation (native North New Jersey), at least, "it'd" is two quick, short syllables; they're almost the same as each other, except a "d" in the second instead of a "t". Like, "it-idd", quickly. Or, if I'm not really carefully enunciating, probably even really indistinguishable from each other, like "iddidd".

I'd be surprised to hear someone pronounce it in a single syllable -- if I noticed.

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  • So for you it's, it'd is pronounced as [ɪɾidbi], not [ɪɾədbi]? Commented Jun 7 at 0:04
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    @AnIELTSLearner, I'm sorry, I'm not good at interpreting IPA. I just did a little google search though, and came upon this video for pronunciation of "that'd, it'd, and what'd". The lady's pronunciations sound normal to my ear: youtube.com/watch?v=Ii56xxJdPPM&t=150s Commented Jun 7 at 1:17

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