What is the difference between
"Listen my voice"
to
"Listen to my voice"?
asked Dec 20, 2015 at 0:31
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1The first one is incorrect, and the second one is correct. You don't "listen something", you "listen TO something".– stangdonCommented Dec 20, 2015 at 0:33
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1Thank you! By the way, can I say "Hear my voice"?– Virtuous LegendCommented Dec 20, 2015 at 0:35
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1Yes, because "hear" doesn't require a preposition, so you can say "They hear my voice" or "Hear my voice!"– stangdonCommented Dec 20, 2015 at 0:37
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oxfordlearnersdictionaries.com/definition/english/…– rogermueCommented Dec 20, 2015 at 6:08
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Related question at ELU: Why is “listen” always followed by “to” in the command voice?, and another: Intransitive verbs with preposition in passive sentences and another: Why Listen to Music, why not Listening Music– CowperKettleCommented Dec 20, 2015 at 6:47
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1 Answer
When the verb doesn't have an object, you can omit the preposition to.
People never listen.
In your example, you have to use listen to.
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May you please show an example of a verb with object and without? Commented Dec 20, 2015 at 0:41
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2@Assiduous With object: "Listen to my voice". Without: "People never listen". Also with: "People never listen to my voice".– Jason CCommented Dec 20, 2015 at 0:42
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Thanks to you, I think that I got it. Thank you for the help Commented Dec 20, 2015 at 0:47