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He didn’t have money, if he had, he (would buy - would have bought) a car?

My last year GSEC exam is tomorrow I have finished my novel and faced this question in grammar work book.

The answer is would have bought, but I don’t know why we used the 3rd conditional – why there is only “had”. Can some one explain?

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"Why there is only “had”. Can some one explain?"

I take it you are asking why the sentence reads:

He didn’t have money, if he had, he would have bought a car.

and not:

He didn’t have money. If he had had money, he would have bought a car.

Basically, the second "had" is connected to the word "money". If you include the latter, you have to include the former. But in this case there is no need because it is all part of the same sentence and it is clear the writer is speaking about the money.

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