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In a sentence:

"In situations like these, you will succeed, you always did."

vs

"In situations like these, you will succeed, you always have."

Is one of these wrong/more correct than the other?

Or does it simply change the meaning? And if it does how?

2
  • Second one is more natural and... So to say, inspiring.
    – BeBlunt
    Feb 12 at 21:14
  • They're both correct, but with different idiomatic meanings. "You always did..." often shows bitterness, as if said while spitting. "You always have..." shows something like pride.
    – gotube
    Jun 14 at 22:24
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With a change of a comma to a semi colon, the 1st is right and it means "In situations like these, you will succeed; you always did (succeed)." The repeated word is omitted. The 2nd is incorrect as it would have meant "In situations like these, you will succeed; you always have (succeed)." To get the 2nd case correct, it will be "In situations like these, you will succeed; you always have succeeded. ". No omission is allowed.

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  • Some might call it "incorrect". I call it perfectly normal English. If I said it and somebody tried to "correct" me I would be cross. This is English, not logic.
    – Colin Fine
    May 15 '20 at 15:59
  • That is very interesting, for me personally the 2nd variant sounds more natural as a non-native speaker. As in "you always have (succeeded (before)) being the implied meaning.
    – Kiwarou_10
    May 15 '20 at 16:26
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I find the second more natural (British English - it may be different in American).

But there's no difference in meaning that I can find.

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