1

In a sentence:

In situations like these, you will succeed, you always did.

vs

In situations like these, you will succeed, you always have.

Is one of these wrong/more correct than the other?

Or does it simply change the meaning? And if it does how?

4
  • Second one is more natural and... So to say, inspiring.
    – BeBlunt
    Commented Feb 12, 2021 at 21:14
  • They're both correct, but with different idiomatic meanings. "You always did..." often shows bitterness, as if said while spitting. "You always have..." shows something like pride.
    – gotube
    Commented Jun 14, 2021 at 22:24
  • @gotube Umm! Possibly. I can see what you are getting at - but I don't think it is that hard and fast. A lot will depend on how they are said, verbal intonation etc.
    – WS2
    Commented Aug 11, 2023 at 19:21
  • @WS2 You're right, it would depend on how they are said, but I'd have to work hard to make the first sentence sound anything but spiteful or bitter. The second could more go either way, and I think the most likely meaning is pride.
    – gotube
    Commented Aug 21, 2023 at 6:41

2 Answers 2

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I find the second more natural (British English - it may be different in American).

But there's no difference in meaning that I can find.

0

The use of did is used when behavior was once common but does not persist into the present or future.

The use of have is used when the behavior persists into the future.

When faced with difficult situations [in the past] you succeeded; you always did [succeed when you faced them in the past].

When faced with difficult situations [in the future] you will succeed; you always have [succeeded when facing difficult situations].

You use the verb tense and did or have to let the listener know whether you're talking about past events of future expectations.

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