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I'd like to say there's not any reason why I go to a bank because I always use internet banking. In this situation, Can I say like this?

  1. I don't have any reasons to go to a bank.

To infinitive is modifying a reason, and I think it is right.

  1. I don't have a reason I have to go to a bank.

Clause( I have to go to a bank) is modifying a reason, and I think it's right.

  1. There's not any reason for me to go to a bank.

For ~ to infinitive is modifying any reason and I think it's right.

Am I right to think this way?

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    In "1" to go to a bank is the infinitive phrase used as an adjective. The "2" has the omitted according to which ("a reason according to which I have to...). The example 3 is essentially the same as 1, I think. All are acceptable.
    – Victor Bazarov
    Commented Aug 14, 2015 at 12:14
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    Can we use " is no reason" instead of '' is not any '' ?
    – Cardinal
    Commented Aug 14, 2015 at 13:12
  • and what about: "I do not see any reasons to go to a bank"
    – Cardinal
    Commented Aug 14, 2015 at 13:13

1 Answer 1

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I don't have any reasons to go to a bank.

I don't have any reason to go to a bank.

I don't have a reason I have to go to a bank.

I have no reason to go to a bank.

There's not any reason for me to go to a bank.

There's no reason for me to go to a bank.

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