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Are all these correct? Do they have the same meaning?

  1. To be able to say whatever you want

  2. To be able to say whatever you want to

  3. To be able to say whatever you want to say

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1 Answer 1

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All the phrases are correct grammatically.

However, it's more usual not to use to-infinitive or "to" without its verb after the verb want when wh-words are used before the want.

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  • I would note that 2 might be considered ungrammatical based on the controversial rule about dangling prepositions (but depends on how one understands that rule)
    – eques
    Nov 8, 2016 at 21:12

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