"Be unable to do" or just "unable to do"?

Question

Is there any difference between these sentence fragments:

Are both of them even correct? If yes, are they synonyms or there is a difference in meaning?

Obfuskater · Accepted Answer · 2014-07-15 14:32:06Z

2

I would say that both fragments are correct, but in the second fragment 'be' is implied in this construction and would be redundant.

answered Jul 15, 2014 at 14:07

Obfuskater

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You're right, edited the question to include "fragments", thanks. Feel free to edit out incorrect parts yourself.
– Luke
Commented Jul 15, 2014 at 14:15

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user6200user6200 · Accepted Answer · 2014-07-15 14:30:39Z

1

First sentence is correct. As far as second is concerned more context is required. However first sentence's structure is more common.

answered Jul 15, 2014 at 14:30

user6200

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2 Answers 2