Source: Hypothetical Imperatives, by Associate Prof Richard McCarty (... MA, PhD, University of Missouri) [I found the author's name at the bottom of 'Source']
Kant introduced a technical term for the imperatives that tell us to take actions as means to ends (goals). He called
them
“hypothetical” becausethey
presuppose that we have the ends to which the actionsthey
command are means (Kant 1997a, 24-27/4:413-16). Since for most ends it is not necessary that we havethem
, when we don’t, the hypothetical imperatives presupposing that we do are not true.
I admit that I must improve my reading comprehension, but are the pronouns here (as greyed) used ambiguously? Could anyone please clarify the pronouns? Here's my guess at the syntax:
we have the ends
to which the actions
they
command
are means
Footnote: I originally asked about this at Philosophy SE. This inspired me to indent in my guess.